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    Paesi Bassi

    Perché i Paesi Bassi non possiedono questa terra?

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    5. The-Short-Night on

      Because the infectious decease of this question has found its way over from r/belgium

    6. bassabas on

      If I had a guess it is because it is part of the County of Bentheim, which was never part of any of the Dutch area’s bordering it. Any historians that can ellaborate?

    7. AlfredvonTirpitz on

      Emlichheim specifically

      The village of Emlichheim (Low Saxon: Emmelkamp) lies directly on the border. The angular “indentation” or “dent” is caused by the border running along the Vechte River and the Coevorden–Picardy Canal. This made the area both strategically and naturally separated in the past.

    8. Signal-Mind7249 on

      We gave that piece to germany so it looks more like a face.

    10. Attygalle on

      The real answer to your question is simply that this is how history worked out.

      But also that there’s little of value there. It’s bogland. It’s sparsely populated and always has been. So it wasn’t relevant to conquer for anyone.

      Having said that, the region is historically far more aligned with NL than other border areas of Germany – for instance, the religion over there was a Dutch reformed one, not the “standard” Lutheran one most of North Germany had.

      It could easily have turned out to be Dutch but then its back to paragraph one and two. The only reason you ask this question is for aesthetic map making reasons. There is no economic or military strategic reason for NL to have it – and it was like that for centuries in the past as well.

    11. toppottoo on

      We never owned it. We did get some land after ww2, but gave everything back except ‘de duivelsberg’.

    15. achterlangs on

      The area was not part of any of the states that ended up forming what would become the netherlands. It was however among the states in middle francia, the last common shared border. 

    17. Moist-Imagination627 on

      Because the EU is not a central superstate like the US is, so we can’t draw perfect straight line borders between our sovereign countries like the US does with some of its states.

      Every county was owned by a certain count, who in turn served a certain king. That particular county just so happens to have belonged to a German count, and therefore it is part of Germany.

    20. kalsoy on

      The real question is why doesn’t Germany not own the area north and south (and west) of it?

      Ans no, this is no based WWII joke, as the war didn’t affect Grrmany’s shape in its west. The answer dates back to the 1580s when several parts of the 7 Nether Lands declared themselves to be an independent federation. And why those 7 – that again dates back to the Burgondy rule and Reformation.

      In the end it all comes down to which nobility owned which plots of land. The kind of nations back then didn’t think in territorial terms but in network terms. Maps were hardly available so nobody would notice a weird shape anyway.

    21. Armando22nl on

      To make it the country with the best shape in the world.

    23. GenericUsername2056 on

      It’s difficult to traverse swampland which historically was and also currently is sparsely inhabited. There wasn’t much of value to be gained by taking it.

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