La “maggioranza qualificata” degli stati dell’UE cerca il respingimento anti-orbán

Could someone a bit more knowledgeable than me in EU laws explain the following to me:

“Triggering Article 7.2 of the EU treaty on establishing the “existence” of an EU-values crisis in Orbán’s Hungary requires unanimity of the other 26. 
The also pro-Russia and pro-Orbán populist Slovakian prime minister Robert Fico might object, but this could see Fico pressured over losing EU money by France and Germany. 

**Subsequently triggering Article 7.3 on stripping Hungary’s Council vote is done by a qualified majority vote**. 

And the 20 EU states who signed the anti-Orbán and pro-LGBTI letter on Tuesday have big enough populations for a QMV majority even if Poland, the EU presidency, abstained.”

Previously I assumed all of article 7 was done by unanimity, so it’s interesting to see it’s not. However, does “remove Council vote” in 7.3 above mean the same as “remove his veto rights”? Or is it somehow different?

I’d always understood it as a black& white “Slovakia would oppose” and that’s end of story why his veto can’t be removed. This article is well written and *sort of* implied it’s not the case? But I’m not very familiar with the source so don’t want to make assumptions.

Nothing changed more talking about what we could do and a strong worded letter.

IMO the EU is becoming as pathetic as Orbáns government on this issue maybe even more, because I can understand why Orban is doing what he’s been doing can’t say the same about the EU⏰

Before the big war my father told me “Putin did more than Ukrainian nationalists – he revived Ukrainian national sentiment”.

Apparently his word start to apply on EU level now.